OBG FMGE Past Paper Questions: Prepare Obstetrics & Gynecology for FMGE: OBGYN is a High yield with around 35 marks mainly from Oncology, Antenatal, Labor & Delivery related topics.
A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:
Correct!
Wrong!
A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her?
Correct!
Wrong!
A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after:
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Wrong!
Rokitansky Kuster Hause syndrome is associated with
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Wrong!
A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
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Wrong!
A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:
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Wrong!
A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
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Wrong!
A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
Correct!
Wrong!
A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is:
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Wrong!
Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:
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Wrong!
A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per speculum examination. Next step should be:
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Wrong!
A 50 years old woman presents with post-coital bleeding. Visible growth on the cervix is detected per speculum examination. The next investigation is:
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Wrong!
Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be:
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Wrong!
A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. The likely cause is:
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Wrong!
Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells. Stage is:
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The true regarding adenomyosis is:
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Wrong!
In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which hormone should be preferred?
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Wrong!
A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million sperms/ml, 60 % normal morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no agglutination is seen. Diagnosis is:
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Wrong!
Primary peritonitis is more common in females because:
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Wrong!
False statement regarding HCG is:
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Wrong!
All of the following are false except:
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Wrong!
Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:
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Wrong!
All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except:
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Wrong!
A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina. Investigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
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Wrong!
A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management is:
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An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman. Management is:
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Wrong!
The most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify the risk of fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:
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Wrong!
A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, except:
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Wrong!
Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:
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Wrong!
Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:
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Wrong!
OBG FMGE PAST PAPER QUESTIONS
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