Categories: FMGE Past PaperOBG FMGE Questions

OBG FMGE Past Paper Questions

OBG FMGE Past Paper Questions: Prepare Obstetrics & Gynecology for FMGE: OBGYN is a High yield with around 35 marks mainly from Oncology, Antenatal, Labor & Delivery related topics.

A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:

Pap smear

Punch biopsy

Endocervical curettage

Colposcopy

Correct! Wrong!

A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her?

Conservative management

Medical management

Laparoscopic Surgery

Laparotomy

Correct! Wrong!

A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after:

Hydatidiform mole

Full term pregnancy

Spontaneous abortion

Ectopic pregnancy

Correct! Wrong!

Rokitansky Kuster Hause syndrome is associated with

Ovarian agenesis

Absent fallopian tube

Vaginal atresia

Bicornuate uterus

Correct! Wrong!

A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:

Turner syndrome

Klinefelter syndrome

Edward syndrome

Down syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:

USG abdomen

Laparoscopy

CT scan

Shielded X-ray

Correct! Wrong!

A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Ruptured ecotopic pregnancy

Threatened abortion

Septic abortion

Correct! Wrong!

A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:

Ovarian cyst

Ectopic pregnancy

Complete abortion

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is:

Torsion of subserous fibroid

Torsion of ovarian cyst

Rupture of ectopic pregnancy

Rupture of ovarian cyst

Correct! Wrong!

Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Red degeneration of fibroid

Pelvic abscess

Correct! Wrong!

A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per speculum examination. Next step should be:

Colposcopic biopsy

Conization

Pap smear

Culdoscopy

Correct! Wrong!

A 50 years old woman presents with post-coital bleeding. Visible growth on the cervix is detected per speculum examination. The next investigation is:

Punch biopsy

Colposcopic biopsy

Pap smear

Cone biopsy

Correct! Wrong!

Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be:

Colposcopy

Vaginal hysterectomy

Conization

Wartheim’s hysterectomy

Correct! Wrong!

A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. The likely cause is:

Septicemia

Uremia

Raised ICT

Intestinal obstruction

Correct! Wrong!

Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells. Stage is:

III

Correct! Wrong!

The true regarding adenomyosis is:

More common in nullipara

Progestins are the agents of choice for medical management

Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea, and an enlarged uterus

More common in young women

Correct! Wrong!

In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which hormone should be preferred?

MDPA

Desogestrel

Norethisterone

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million sperms/ml, 60 % normal morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no agglutination is seen. Diagnosis is:

Azoospermia

Aspermia

Oligospermia

Normospermia

Correct! Wrong!

Primary peritonitis is more common in females because:

Ostia of fallopian tubes communicate with abdominal cavity

Peritoneum overlies the uterus

Rupture of functional ovarian cysts

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

False statement regarding HCG is:

It is secreted by cytotrophoblasts

It acts on same receptor as LH does

It has luteotrophic action

It is a glycoprotein

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are false except:

Oxytocin sensitivity increased during delivery

Prostaglandins should be given during 2nd trimester

Ergot derivatives relax lower segment of uterus

Oxytocin is best for induction of labour in IUD

Correct! Wrong!

Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:

Hydatidiform mole

Ectopic pregnancy

Anencephaly

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except:

37 weeks

IUD

Transverse lie

Continous bleeding

Correct! Wrong!

A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina. Investigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:

Immediate CS

Blood transfusion

Conservative

Medical induction of labour

Correct! Wrong!

A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management is:

Myomectomy

Conservative

Hysterectomy

Termination of pregnancy

Correct! Wrong!

An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman. Management is:

Immediate removal by laprotomy

Wait and watch

Removal by laparotomy in second trimester

Remove at time of caesarean section

Correct! Wrong!

The most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify the risk of fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:

Glycosylated Hb

Ultrasound

MS-AFP

Amniocentesis

Correct! Wrong!

A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, except:

Oral hypoglycaemics cause PIH

Insulin does not cross placenta

Oral hypoglycaemics cross placenta and deplete fetal insulin

During pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be met with sulphonylureas

Correct! Wrong!

Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:

Robert’s pelvis

Naegele’s pelvis

Rachitic pelvis

Osteomalacia pelvis

Correct! Wrong!

Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:

Robert’s pelvis

Naegele’s pelvis

Rachitic pelvis

Osteomalacia pelvis

Correct! Wrong!

OBG FMGE PAST PAPER QUESTIONS

How to Prepare OBG for FMGE?	How to Prepare OBG for FMGE?

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OBG FMGE Past Paper Questions

OBG FMGE Past Paper Questions: Prepare Obstetrics & Gynecology for FMGE: OBGYN is a High yield with around 35 marks mainly from Oncology, Antenatal, Labor & Delivery related topics.

A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:

A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her?

A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after:

Rokitansky Kuster Hause syndrome is associated with

A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:

A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:

A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:

A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:

A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is:

Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:

A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per speculum examination. Next step should be:

A 50 years old woman presents with post-coital bleeding. Visible growth on the cervix is detected per speculum examination. The next investigation is:

Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be:

A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. The likely cause is:

Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells. Stage is:

The true regarding adenomyosis is:

In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which hormone should be preferred?

A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million sperms/ml, 60 % normal morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no agglutination is seen. Diagnosis is:

Primary peritonitis is more common in females because:

False statement regarding HCG is:

All of the following are false except:

Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:

All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except:

A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina. Investigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:

A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management is:

An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman. Management is:

The most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify the risk of fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:

A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, except:

Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:

Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:

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